DrGo0;6018258 said:
You are still missing the point, a gun proves intent-
i am not missing the point, i am declaring your point invalid.
the distinction between drugs for personal use and drugs for distribution is NOT a valid comparison at all, and simply indicates your emotional problem with guns. take a look at your provided definition of manslaughter:
"Manslaughter is the killing of another by intentional act (not intentionally killing the other person, but intentionally committing the act which results in another’s death) or by culpable negligence."
using a firearm in self-defense can easily be called manslaughter. your entire argument is, "well, there was a gun, so it's worse somehow." Plutarch is absolutely right that you calling it "a killing machine" is an absolute give-away that you have less of an argument and more of an emotional problem with guns. the ACT that resulted in Trayvon's death is chasing him down.
note that you agree a man can carry something for the express purpose of using it as a weapon and yet, if it's not as emotionally scary as A GUN, it's immediately not as bad in your book. further, if he did not chase him down to shoot him, it DOESN'T MATTER if he was carrying a gun. you're still approaching this from the perspective that since he had a gun at all, there's literally no other intent in his mind than to hunt down Trayvon and shoot him. even if this WAS the case --fuck it, maybe it was-- that's not proven merely by the fact that he had a gun.
if a man lives in Florida, can legally carry a gun, hears a noise in his yard and goes outside, and as a result, he gets attacked by an intruder and shoots him in self-defense, is THAT murder rather than manslaughter because he picked up a gun instead of a baseball bat?
Zimmerman may be 100% guilty of causing Martin's death, but that's not something based around the fact that a gun was involved. again, if he'd been carrying, say, a pocket knife, and stabbed Martin to death after Martin attacked the mysterious man following him in the dark, is that not the same thing as what happened, simply minus the gun? don't start talking about "justification" and "intent" if you're so hung up on this gun thing because the gun itself does not prove intent. ask yourself how often Zimmerman carried that gun and DIDN'T shoot someone.
DrGo0;6018569 said:
Examples: Eddy Hothead gets into a drunken argument in a saloon with his acquaintance Bob Bonehead, and Hothead hits Bonehead over the head with a beer bottle, causing internal bleeding and death. Brent Burgle sneaks into a warehouse intent on theft and is surprised by a security man, whom Burgle knocks down a flight of stairs, killing him. Both are voluntary manslaughter. However, if either man had used a gun, a murder charge is most likely since he brought a deadly weapon to use in the crime.
your second case is a TERRIBLE example because he was committing a premeditated crime and would then be using a gun in the commission of it. if you're citing THIS as proof, you need to rethink your argument.
the first case, i'm going to be honest with you, i don't see anyone charging as manslaughter because the guy got into a drunken fight and killed someone. so it's not about the gun, it's about the intent: i MEAN to assault this man in a drunken rage.
also, let us not forget that some jurisdictions --your example provides none-- have specific offenses on the books meant to make their courts "tough on gun crime." there's no discussion if that factors in.