if the law of the past says "an eye for an eye" in cases of revenge, and Jesus says "no more eye for an eye," this is a pretty clear statement that the law of the past is invalid. now that's just an example, which is what i thought i was providing.fiat_money;1907606 said:It doesn't seem to say "The laws of the past are invalid.".
pretty sure i didn't claim Matthew 5 does any such thing for every case you've provided. that's why it'd be an example. but if you think that Jewish laws apply to Jews alone, and you think the NT creates a religion that's not Judaism... hmmm.fiat_money;1907606 said:Seems Matthew 5 does nothing to invalidate the bans that were posted:
Last edited: