The Lonious Monk;c-9900104 said:LUClEN;c-9900091 said:The Lonious Monk;c-9900059 said:LUClEN;c-9900048 said:The Lonious Monk;c-9900041 said:LUClEN;c-9899954 said:The Lonious Monk;c-9899892 said:LUClEN;c-9899867 said:The Lonious Monk;c-9899862 said:LUClEN;c-9899842 said:A lot of slaves in America were purchased from Africans, too. Which adds to my point: both groups were dominated and oppressed as a consequence of some kind of conquest. So how does his view really change anything?
Cause that's not what the topic is about. The question is about what group America owes more. The European colonization, African infighting, and none of that other shit you're talking about is relevant. I don't understand what's hard to understand about that. The conquest of Natives was done by America. That's why its relevant to this discussion.
So you're agreeing with me, but don't have an answer. America is solely responsible for the oppression of indigenous peoples, whereas a lot of Africans were traded to the Americans after already falling victim to conquest. His view makes even less sense in light of this.
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No, but you got it man.
You just said said "The conquest of Natives was done by America". Yet, history tells us that many of the slaves in America are there as a consequence of the conquest of Africa, by America and other groups, which you agree happened. So if one has 1 main contributor, and the other has many, for which are they more responsible? The one where they are the sole contributor makes the most sense to me.
So, instead of trying to hand wave this problem away with misleading accusations about it being unrelated, clarify the damn point. You've only obscured it
The bold does not matter. For like the third time, the discussion is not "Who had it worse?" It's "Which group is owed more?" The fact that Africans got here because other Africans conquered them and sold them has nothing to do with what America owes current day African Americans.
If what is owed is measured by how they were wronged and to what extent, then it matters. How else would we make those kinds of calculations?
Again, if you read the OP, the TC is clearly talking about what America owes those groups. Africans conquering Africans has nothing to do with that.
I responded to a specific line of inference, and you stuck your nose in it. The OP is not what I responded to. In the context of the posts you decided to address, how do we make these calculations without judging the causal factors behind them?
Nigga, I know what you were initially referencing. My comment was to bring the discussion back on topic. And you calculate based on the interactions between the two parties in question. Say someone totals your car and you're forced to ride the bus until you get another one. Then say some nigga robs you while you're waiting at the bus stop one night. The nigga that robbed you may owe you the money he stole from you, but he doesn't owe you the cost of your totaled car too just because the loss of your car is what put you in a position to be robbed in the first place. That's basically the argument you're making.
If the reason you got robbed is because your car was totalled you could absolutely argue that the person who put you in that situation has some blame for you getting robbed. That could be a kind of consequential damage awarded to a plaintiff. Idk enough about civil law to know how well that would fly, but there have been cases where someone being slandered has sued for lossed wages for jobs they never got because they argued that the slander made them unhireable.
I was on topic: the topic was what the hell was he trying to draw a distinction from when the two situations bare so many similarities. You even agree these causal similarities exist, so I don't know why you couldn't just let him defend his own argument.
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