Wait, so are you saying that in Hebrew, the word for "God" can literally refer to Yaweh and anyone who acts under his will? No wonder there is so much confusion regarding certain matters in the Bible.
That arameic Bible is pretty confusing too. For instance, here is a passage from Matthew 22 from the New International Bible:
41While the Pharisees were gathered together, Jesus asked them, 42"What do you think about the Christ[a]? Whose son is he?"
"The son of David," they replied.
43He said to them, "How is it then that David, speaking by the Spirit, calls him 'Lord'? For he says,
44" 'The Lord said to my Lord:
"Sit at my right hand
until I put your enemies
under your feet." ' 45If then David calls him 'Lord,' how can he be his son?"
Now here it is from the Arameic bible:
Now while the Pharisees were assembled Y'shua asked them and said, "What do you say about the Mashiyach? Who is he the son of? They answered saying to him, "The son of David." He said to them, "How then did David in the spirit call him Master YHWH? For he said, 'That Master YHWH said to my master "You sit at my right hand until I place your enemies under your feet."' Therefore if David calls him Master YHWH, how is he his son?"
The first translation makes perfect sense. This translation is weird. First it says that David called the Messiah (Y'shua) YHWH. Then it said that YHWH told the Messiah to sit at his right hand. Then it says that David called the Messiah YHWH again. So isn't this scripture indeed referring to the Father and Son both as Yahweh, or is this another weird plurality convention of the older language.