musicology1985;1233295 said:
Those links answered all of your questions.
no, they absolutely did not. you presented them as an argument that Germany was never called the Federal Republic of Germany, but the second one says nothing of the sort (it actually says the opposite), and you're refusing to note what the first link is even supposed to say.
musicology1985;1233295 said:
Copout. You’re just too dense to get it or more realistically, you just don’t want to.
it's incredibly ironic that you would post this after your previous reply. furthermore, part of why i state that is that you are refusing to even note something as undisputed as the difference in size between East and West Germany.
musicology1985;1233295 said:
The First Reich-Holy Roman Empire, Prussia, successor confederations & Austrian Empire, etc, etc
giving me the list again is NOT an argument for meaningful breaks in the monarchy. remember that you're arguing for continual, unbroken control of these nations by some German monarchs. what's the purpose of the breaks?
musicology1985;1233295 said:
This whole statement is false. I proved all of my points very clearly.
no, because i'm waiting to hear the reasoning for these supposed distinctions any time now.
musicology1985;1233295 said:
that was actually a comment on my post, but please, let's get emotional about it and then repeat the same post.
musicology1985;1233295 said:
At the top of all 5 Reichs are German Royalty within different systems and eras. AND THE U.S. IS NOT 300 YEARS OLD.
yes, i am aware that the US is not literally 300 years old, but at the same time your claim of direction by German royalty precedes 1776. and with all this "at the top of all 5 Reichs" is the same "explain to me why the breaks matter" thing again. look, the First and Second Reichs, as generally identified by everyone but you, have clear endings for clear reasons (such as World War I ending the Second Reich). arguing that there's NO breaks between the Reichs makes the concept of different Reichs meaningless unless you can tell me WHY there's a supposed break.
musicology1985;1233295 said:
so do you know what the term blurb means?
musicology1985;1233295 said:
It has everything to do with West vs. East and global governance engineered from the chess board that is Germany, not 75% & 25%; because both parts of Germany ended up adopting the system that the U.S. laid down, which was the plan from the start.
if that was the plan from the start, then what was the purpose of East Germany? plus, you're saying "there's no way East Germany wouldn't have joined West Germany" as a response to... me saying "there's no way East Germany wouldn't have joined West Germany." huh.
musicology1985;1233295 said:
Furthermore, Hitler’s consequence was that he was used as a pawn to further the agenda of global governance and the creation of Israel. The west didn’t give a damn about the Soviets, which is why the alliance quickly deteriorated.
so the West was continuing Hitler's work... but Hitler was a pawn, so he wouldn't have been continuing his own work... so what was with the continuing Hitler's work thing?
musicology1985;1233295 said:
John J. McCloy (Assistant Secretary of the U.S. Navy) had plenty of opportunities to disrupt Aushwitz but did not do so. After the war, he commuted the sentences of most prominent Nazis as High Commisioner of Germany.
i don't know about this "plenty of opportunities," but what's with the randomly specific reference of John McCloy out of nowhere?
if the UK wanted a war, they could have easily refused to back down at Munich and gone to war against Germany alongside France with odds much more in their favor.
musicology1985;1233295 said:
Bullshit because they did exactly what you stated anyway and they were not attacked.
bullshit? okay, first off, they did not do "exactly what i stated" because they DID back down at Munich. it's not possible for them to have done what i said; they signed the Munich Agreement in 1938, and didn't go to war until 1939. your refusal to acknowledge this FACT is simply ridiculous.
second, they weren't attacked? well, France certainly was, and they would have been in a better position to fight in 1938. and the UK obviously suffered from repeated aerial attacks while Hitler plotted an invasion. yes, the UK was not invaded by German forces. but what's the point of me acknowledging this if you can't even admit that the UK did not do "exactly what i stated?"
musicology1985;1233295 said:
The U.S. was already in the war by 1941.
this is just being childish. you could ACKNOWLEDGE who declared war on whom and argue that it was inevitable because of the Lend-Lease Act, but instead, you simply claim otherwise. the US did not declare war on Germany.
Yes he was. Hitler began pulling back in 1943 when he still had a chance but instead made the decision to taper down.[/quote]here we go again:
"no, he did not. he was not "pulling back" in 1943; he was still throwing vast quantities of troops into Stalingrad at the end of 1942 and losing them in 1943. this is not pulling back or tapering down, this is having your men captured and killed by Soviet forces. or being pushed back across North Africa and Eastern Europe. if you are losing troops to advancing armies, you are not pulling back, you are being defeated. to repeat myself again:
"seriously, show me ANY evidence of Hitler scaling back his work that cannot be explained by the Allies beating the shit out of his military." all you're giving me is a vague statement of "he still had a chance but he pulled back." what chance? what evidence of pulling back?"
is there some reason you are continually claiming that he "tapered down" without bothering to address the bolded question i have repeatedly asked you?
musicology1985;1233295 said:
Complete garbage again, and you have no evidence to support Hitler’s death and neither do the Soviets. Nobody knows for sure what happened to Hitler because there is no proof of his demise.
i have witness statements and the evidence the Soviets collected. this is easily more support than your claim of "we don't know what happened." furthermore, even if you disagree with the Soviet claim, you should acknowledge it exists.
musicology1985;1233295 said:
The U.S. was very sensitive to the German peoples needs, they even sent in a German American General (Eisenhower) to fight, rebuild and then run the U.S. during the process. It was like two brothers duking it out. No hate, just business.
now explain to me why Eisenhower has to be some loves-all-Germans person because he has German heritage. "the Nazis also encouraged Germans to return to Germany and fight with them, but oddly enough, i don't recall Eisenhower taking part in that."
musicology1985;1233295 said:
I am consistent. I have proven everything that I claimed.
this is, pardon my tone, a flat-out fucking lie. you are giving absolutely zero support for your 1943 "tapering down" assertion. for something to be proven, you have to actually DO so.
musicology1985;1233295 said:
Well, in a sense he was right in regards to the Power part. The Nazi’s could have dominated Eastern Europe had the U.K., U.S. & France not got involved.
i don't think he would have DOMINATED it, but obviously he would have been much more successful if the rest of the Allies were not involved.
musicology1985;1233295 said:
I didn't back away from that position, but in order to keep this land they felt that they had to annihilate the USSR so no further action could be sought by the Russians later.
you SHOULD back away from that position, because once you say "well, they had to keep going," it's not really about getting back the land you lost, is it? plus, we're also talking about land they worked WITH the Soviets to acquire. obviously he wanted to wipe out Slavs, but that goes beyond getting back lost land.
musicology1985;1233295 said:
Also, they wanted domination over all of Eastern Europe, and the USSR was standing in the way of that because they had the same goal-
i've never disputed this, so...
and that's why he went to war with them when he was ALREADY at war with the West
musicology1985;1233295 said:
What are you talking about? The East was always his target, not the West. The West declared war on him so he found himself encircled from all sides.
i am talking about the basic timeline of World War II. which, if you were confused about, would make some sense:
1939 - Hitler is at war with the UK and France
1941 - Hitler is at war with the USSR
he declared war on the USSR while ALREADY at war with Western nations. and, according to you, while already at war with the US as well.