All Conspiracy Theorists are bound for Hell

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VIBE;4728093 said:
Why is the Old Testaments laws change? Aren't the 10 Commandments apart of the Old Testament? They seem to have weeded out (changed) to only be left with 10. How come? Sure you'll say "Jesus died for our sins" type of stuff, and I realize that it's cool they do away with the "sacrifices for sin" thing. Why were the other things changed?

This was the plan all along, OT prophecies bear witness to that. The OT was more of an introductory law to God's real, permanent law and solution to be offered later. And all i'm gonna give is a hint: "I will raise them up a Prophet from among their brothers, like to you, and will put my words in his mouth; and he shall speak to them all that I shall command him." (Deuteronomy 18:18)
 
judahxulu;4731376 said:
solid analysis;4729896 said:
Nice going VIBE.

I'll have to wait till later to respond

we cool so im not gonna get all aggro witcha but um...you should look at this on the wise of the OT offering salvation http://www.blueletterbible.org/search/translationResults.cfm?criteria=salvation+LORD&sstr=0&t=KJV

lol God is good

but true, salvation is mentioned in OT. though what i'm saying is kind of hard to break down cuz i know it probably sound like i'm saying no one in the OT era got saved. No, plenty ppl from the OT era received salvation but the salvation they received was made possibly by Christ sacrifice. The people of OT ear didn't have the "Christ with us." They looked forward to His coming, and trusted and had faith that He would save them though. Not sure if that makes sense but basically - how many verses in the OT contain commands or verse that call the believer to wash away sins (saved themselves)? example: "Corresponding to that, baptism now saves you-- not the removal of dirt from the flesh, but an appeal to God for a good conscience-- through the resurrection of Jesus Christ" (1 Peter 3:21)

See in this era, salvation is here. We can save ourselves the moment we obey the gospel. We still must have a working faith, but baptism washes away sins. baptism is a test of a person faith and it is at that point which we received forgiveness of sins after having believed and repented.
 
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judahxulu;4731376 said:
solid analysis;4729896 said:
Nice going VIBE.

I'll have to wait till later to respond

we cool so im not gonna get all aggro witcha but um...you should look at this on the wise of the OT offering salvation http://www.blueletterbible.org/search/translationResults.cfm?criteria=salvation+LORD&sstr=0&t=KJV

watch out now...the simple fact that salvation is mentioned implies that there is a condemnation mention in the OT as well and Beenwize just can't take that

 
Jesus came to fulfill but not to abolish ANY of gods laws.

Jesus showed he could perfect them.

Jesus only took away the consequences of not following the law; sacrifices/stoning.

Law still stands.
 
beenwize;4731663 said:
solid analysis;4727438 said:
beenwize;4726030 said:
So are you saying Jesus and Yahweh are the SAME entity? You would have to say that because throughout the Old Testament they did not recognize or teach of two entities being god.

1 Chronicles 17:20

O LORD, there is none like thee, neither is there any God beside thee, according to all that we have heard with our ears.

1 Samuel 2:2

There is none holy as the LORD: for there is none beside thee: neither is there any rock like our God.

.

No, the Father and Son are two different beings. They are still both God, as far as authority goes even though the Father has more authority.

dude the Old Testament does not recognize two different beings as god..



This is Yahweh speaking in the Old Testament.


Isaiah 43:11 I, even I, am the LORD; and beside me there is no saviour.

Isaiah 44:8 Do not tremble, do not be afraid. Did I not proclaim this and foretell it long ago? You are my witnesses. Is there any God besides me? No, there is no other Rock; I know not one."

Isaiah 45:5 I am the LORD, and there is none else, there is no God beside me: I girded thee, though thou hast not known me:

That they may know from the rising of the sun, and from the west, that there is none beside me. I am the LORD, and there is none else.

^^ Now if Yahweh is speaking in those scriptures and he has a son named Jesus as you claim then why is he not recogizing him as a god and a savior?

If Yahweh who you call Father is saying there is no god nor savior with him then why do you not understand this? What would be the point of constantly saying no savior is beside me if you still saying there are 2 gods who are a Father and Son?

keep in mind the 'Father' and 'Son' are titles many the same of which apply to both the Son and Father. 'Father' and 'Son' titles mainly deal with their assumed roles towards us and especially while Jesus was on earth.

"For unto us a Child is born, unto us a Son is given; and the government will be upon His shoulder. And His name will be called Wonderful, Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace" (Isaiah 9:6).

This verse is about Jesus, but notice towards the end. What does Jesus get called toward the end of the verse?

As it is written, Jesus is regarded as the Word. And through the Word, "All things were made through Him, and without Him nothing was made that was made" (John 1:3). So since Jesus is mankind's Creator, guess what that makes Him? He is the Father of us all. UH OH !

Yea i know some of yall don't wanna hear that

anything but the truth

 
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VIBE;4736297 said:
Jesus came to fulfill but not to abolish ANY of gods laws.

Jesus showed he could perfect them.

Jesus only took away the consequences of not following the law; sacrifices/stoning.

Law still stands.

It's not a question of whether Law still stands or not, it's a question of who's law or which law. Yes all law comes from God. That doesn't mean certain aspects of God law won't change, which they did.

Christ law supercede the previous one in place - "Then said he, See, I come to do your will, O God. He takes away the first, that he may establish the second." (Hebrews 10:9)

It says right there it was GOD WILL for Christ to establish the second rule for mankind. Does that mean Christ destroyed the old law? God said BOTH, that He didn't come to destroy the (old) law AND also that He meant for Christ to establish the (new) second. How can that be? There's some harmonizing that need to be done there. You got the game bent as far as the reason WHY Christ said He came not to destroy the law but to bring it to it's completion.

Also, that Law still exists is self-evident and an obvious thing to point out. Though pointing out that Law still exists doesn't show where a person gets the authority to bind OT law onto others where the NT law doesn't bind it.

Oh, and all conspiracy theories are still lies.
 
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